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Plato's Atlantis My Theory

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Author Topic: Plato's Atlantis My Theory  (Read 53040 times)
Qoais
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« on: March 05, 2007, 11:25:04 am »

Since it's so much easier to cut and paste, than to retype everything, I've copied my posts from another forum:

One must also use their own common sense.  We don't have a time machine to go back and actually see it all, but I think we do have to realize that Plato was talking about two different time lines. The time when the gods first came, and then the period of time near the end, when the last cataclysm ocurred and the majority of Atlantis sunk. There is no indication of the length of time in between the beginning and the end. Therefore, we do not know when the land broke up, and became islands and peninsulas. Even the scientists are in disagreement as to when this happened.
There are layers of salt in the Med. Scientists specualte how they got there. If the Med. was connected at one time to what we call the Indian ocean, before the Arabian peninsula raised up, then the Med would naturally have a lot of salt in it, since it was joined to the ocean eons ago. When the earth was young, the land rose and fell, rose and fell. When it fell, the water covered it. Leaving salt.
The priest himself explained to Solon that the area had been flooded many times, whereas the Greeks only remembered one time.
Nor does Plato say that the city of Atlantis was destroyed in the last event. He says the ISLAND - meaning the part that was left after the other catclysms.

"But afterwards there occurred violent earthquakes and floods; and in a single day and night of misfortune all your warlike men in a body sank into the earth, and the island of Atlantis in like manner disappeared in the depths of the sea."

The city was probably destroyed earlier. After losing their city and so much land, it makes sense that they would then try to spread to the continents to subjugate the peoples there in order to gain more land for a growing population. The island probably could not grow enough food to support the population and they needed to expand

When Nikas proposed his theory in Robert Sarmast's forum, we had a bit of fun imagining an island in the shape of an elongated peanut, stretching from the shores of Spain, to Crete.
Now I don't know if Egypt's borders were always where they are now, so I don't know where exactly, the borders of Libya were. Anyway, IF Atlantas was this large island in the Med, it would explain it's close proximity to other lands that they had taken over, the easy accessability to others lands for trade, the "routine acess" to Athens, the space for such a huge population, and after the disaster, the isolation of Crete which maintained the high culture for another 2000 years. We see pottery from Crete showing the acrobats playing with the bulls. I THINK, but can't remember positively, that this was the only place we find this pottery. Or perhaps some is in areas close to Crete. Feel free to remind me! PERHAPS, we only see this pottery there because it is the location where the bulls were kept and cared for.

Not to argue with Georgeos scientific studies, I just thought we should maybe look at an overall view of the story itself, using common sense to connect the story with what all arms of science have discovered so far.

In Diodorus Siculus - it says that the Amazons first attacked the Atlanteans - so I'm assuming they must be fairly close by. The Atlanteans, after a pitched battle which the Amazons won, surrendered their cities on terms of capitulation. Queen Myrina of the Amazons, established friendship and founded a city to bear her name in place of the city she had razed. The Atlanteans apparently then asked Myrina to invade the land of the Gorgons, a folk which resided on their borders - and she did so.

Now I'm assuming The Amazons lived on one side of the Atlanteans, and that the Gorgons lived on a different side, otherwise the Amazons would have attacked THEM first.

From Wikipedia regarding the land of the Gorgons.



quote:
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Their home is on the farthest side of the western ocean; according to later authorities, in Libya. The Attic tradition, reproduced in Euripides (Ion), regarded the Gorgon as a monster, produced by Gaia to aid her sons the giants against the gods and slain by Athena.
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To me, the farthest side of the western ocean would mean of course that it's the farthest piece of land right on the coast of Libya, which is now Morocco. So - if the Atlanteans were neighbors of the Gorgons, they too would be on the western shores. So you see - we can find logic for both locations - the western end of the Med, or the middle. The more comparisons we can make that work on a logical scale, the more solid becomes a theory. OR Plato included some reality and some imagination into his story.

I realize he said "which is NOW called".
I was just saying that the whole landmass had already been named, and whatever country was named after Eumelus, in the language of THAT country, his name was Gadeirus. Georgeos has assured us that in any of the histories, Gadeirus always was where it is now. Spain. Therefore, Atlantis faced/was near/beside/etc.etc./ Spain. Or more specifically, modern day Cadiz. But if in history, the whole Iberian peninsula was called Gadeirus, it leaves it open as to which Side of Spain, Atlantis was "facing". The "extremity" of the land Atlantis faced Gadeirus near the Pillars. The extremity is the area farthest from the middle. So, the southwestern extremity would mean that Atlantis was in the ocean, and the southeastern extremity would be in the Med. Both "extremities" would still be near the Pillars and "facing" Spain.
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An open-minded view of the past allows for an unprejudiced glimpse into the future.

Logic rules.

"Intellectual brilliance is no guarantee against being dead wrong."


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